Hypothetical VAR Scenario

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Red Wing Blade

Cook Pass Babtridge
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Yesterday the handball occurred and the referee seemingly didn't spot it, so he waited for the ball to go out of play before the VAR check was conducted.

What would have happened if we had gone down the other end and scored before the VAR check, meaning this was the first time that play stopped before the VAR check happened?

Would the goal be ruled out so play can be brought back to the penalty?

This is going to happen at some point.
 



Yesterday the handball occurred and the referee seemingly didn't spot it, so he waited for the ball to go out of play before the VAR check was conducted.

What would have happened if we had gone down the other end and scored before the VAR check, meaning this was the first time that play stopped before the VAR check happened?

Would the goal be ruled out so play can be brought back to the penalty?

This is going to happen at some point.
Yes, would be ruled out. Our throw in was ruled out (less dramatic), and brought back to the penalty, but same principle.
 
Exact same happened in the Liverpool city match was a stonewall penalty like ours yesterday

They just bottled giving it then came up with the usual BS excuses
 
The Liverpool vs man City one was a clear bottle job.

I wouldn't mind too much a rule that says if a goal is scored before a VAR check can be done, then they just scrap the VAR check and go with whatever the ref decided.
 
What happens if:

- An incident happens in the 92nd minute and there's 3 minutes added on time. The ball stays in play for the remainder of the game until the referee has to blow for full time?

- An incident happens and the ball stays in play for another few minutes...play then stops as the ball goes out of play and gets brought back after a VAR check. Do the minutes played between the incident and VAR check get added on to the end of the game? ...I bet they don't.
 
Yesterday the handball occurred and the referee seemingly didn't spot it, so he waited for the ball to go out of play before the VAR check was conducted.

What would have happened if we had gone down the other end and scored before the VAR check, meaning this was the first time that play stopped before the VAR check happened?

Would the goal be ruled out so play can be brought back to the penalty?

This is going to happen at some point.

Not the Prem but I’m sure this happened in the Nations League in the summer.
 
In the Liverpool Man City game the correct decision should have been a free kick to Liverpool in their own penalty area. The ball hit Bernado Silva's hand which deflected it across goal onto Trent Alexander Arnold's hand, which resulted in Liverpool going down the other end and scoring. No idea why the goal was given, they really bottled it!
 
Talking of VAR. In yesterdays game between FLChelski and Bournville why was the goal allowed when a player was clearly offside albeit he wasnt the goalscorer. Makes a mockery of the other night when offside was given against us when it coild of been either a goal or penalty decision and IIRC Burnley had one ruled out with a non active player in an offside position against Wet sham a few weeks back. UTB
 
Talking of VAR. In yesterdays game between FLChelski and Bournville why was the goal allowed when a player was clearly offside albeit he wasnt the goalscorer. Makes a mockery of the other night when offside was given against us when it coild of been either a goal or penalty decision and IIRC Burnley had one ruled out with a non active player in an offside position against Wet sham a few weeks back. UTB
He was running away from goal so wasn't seeking to gain an advantage therefore only offence would have been interfering with an opponent but didn't block keepers view so this decision was the right one.
 
Fuck all that, can anyone explain why the ref blew for offside when Baldock cut in during the second half?

Also, why didn't Baldock bury it and then ask the ref to review it?
The Ref blows for the Baldock offside because the Ref is sure it's offside.
If Baldock puts it in the goal after the whistle, no review can make that a goal. The whistle has gone.
 
Fuck all that, can anyone explain why the ref blew for offside when Baldock cut in during the second half?

Also, why didn't Baldock bury it and then ask the ref to review it?

This!!! I said the same. Always stick it in the net and deal with VAR after. Ignore even the referees whistle now. Just play on and let VAR do the work. He should have scored it.
 
The Ref blows for the Baldock offside because the Ref is sure it's offside.
If Baldock puts it in the goal after the whistle, no review can make that a goal. The whistle has gone.

How can the referee be sure he's offside if he isn't stood in line? And if he's sure it's offside from his viewpoint, why have a linesman?
 



How can the referee be sure he's offside if he isn't stood in line? And if he's sure it's offside from his viewpoint, why have a linesman?
Linesman flags in order to signal to the referee he believes the player is offside.
Referee takes that advice into account.
If he also believes the player is offside, he blows for offside.
 
I had a thought about how an alternative scenario to the Newcastle goal could have played out. Imagine if just prior to the ball through, Newcastle had played a ball through which was marginal, the ball is then played through to Shelvey in the next phase, there's then a coming together between Hendo and Shelvey with Hendo appearing to have been fouled, Shelvey scores, a fisticuffs starts between the players.

Maybe a bit far fetched but it could happen. The feckers in Stockley Park would have to check 4 different incidents (assuming each check passed) If they're anything like as borderline as the Lunny Spurs one, that could take 8-10 minutes to check.

Can't wait for something like that to happen. Just hope it doesn't involve us. Hopefully that would be the death of the stupid system.
 
In the Liverpool Man City game the correct decision should have been a free kick to Liverpool in their own penalty area. The ball hit Bernado Silva's hand which deflected it across goal onto Trent Alexander Arnold's hand, which resulted in Liverpool going down the other end and scoring. No idea why the goal was given, they really bottled it!
But it was accidentally Bernardo so why would Liverpool have had a free kick? And if it were a free kick for Liverpool, surely you could claim an advantage with them going straight on the attack?

My interpretation:
Bernardo handball accidental, play on
TAA handball, debatable, for arguments sake let’s say accidental, play on
Fabinho scores, accidental handball by TAA in the build up, handball given
TAA is in the penalty area so penalty to Man City (which they wouldn’t have got had Liverpool not scored)
If the penalty is missed, play on
If the penalty is scored, handball by Bernardo in the build up to a goal, free kick to Liverpool

I don’t think they’ve thought these rules through.
 
Fuck all that, can anyone explain why the ref blew for offside when Baldock cut in during the second half?

Also, why didn't Baldock bury it and then ask the ref to review it?
After that incident I said every time you see the flag go up, shoot immediately and hope it crosses the line before the whistle goes.
 
The Ref blows for the Baldock offside because the Ref is sure it's offside.
If Baldock puts it in the goal after the whistle, no review can make that a goal. The whistle has gone.
The ref can’t possibly have been sure that Baldock was offside. I haven’t seen a replay yet but it looked a tight call in real time. Even the linesman aren’t sure all the time and they’re bang in line with it, well they’re normally bang in line with it anyway.
 
The ref can’t possibly have been sure that Baldock was offside. I haven’t seen a replay yet but it looked a tight call in real time. Even the linesman aren’t sure all the time and they’re bang in line with it, well they’re normally bang in line with it anyway.
I'm explaining why I think the referee blew for offside. I think he blew for offside because he believed it to be offside.
 
But it was accidentally Bernardo so why would Liverpool have had a free kick? And if it were a free kick for Liverpool, surely you could claim an advantage with them going straight on the attack?

My interpretation:
Bernardo handball accidental, play on
TAA handball, debatable, for arguments sake let’s say accidental, play on
Fabinho scores, accidental handball by TAA in the build up, handball given
TAA is in the penalty area so penalty to Man City (which they wouldn’t have got had Liverpool not scored)
If the penalty is missed, play on
If the penalty is scored, handball by Bernardo in the build up to a goal, free kick to Liverpool

I don’t think they’ve thought these rules through.

I agree, they haven't thought it through or the various scenarios that could occur. The rule simply states that a goal scored or created with the use of an accidental hand ball will not count. There were two hand balls in the Liverpool box - Silva's accidental ricochet, and Arnold's accidental hand ball - which prevented the ball going a City player in the area. Penalty? - nope as the first handball negates the second. The fact that Liverpool then went up the pitch and scored complicates it further
 
What is even stranger is that the VAR team stated that Silva's accidental hand ball was not taken into account. They simply decided that Arnold's handball didn't warrant a penalty! If you ask me they need their bumps feeling and their glasses checking.
 
I've been playing and watching football for 40 odd years and I simply no longer understand the rules. What a fucking shame that is.

When do players become active?
The whole debate about handball in the Liverpool / man city game confuses me
How can lundstram be off when the line goes right through Dier's shoulder (I'm told that's an optical illusion!!!!! WTF)
Who decides when a "reset" happens and do they just make it up on the spot each time
How is Basham at Norwich not penalty?
lino's put up their flag only if they are dead certain, but what happens when they are dead certain but wrong?

It's a shit show all right
 
Oooooh! Now there's a hypothetical question we haven't thought about. I suppose the default position if this happens is a penalty to Man U!
 
Yes, would be ruled out. Our throw in was ruled out (less dramatic), and brought back to the penalty, but same principle.
That being so, I'm not saying you are wrong, surely this would cause animosity between opposing clubs and supporters. Thought football authorities were against friction between supporter.
Bloody Pandora's Box this VAR. Sad to say I don't think the football authorities will do much about it for a while, if at all.
 
Linesman flags in order to signal to the referee he believes the player is offside.
Referee takes that advice into account.
If he also believes the player is offside, he blows for offside.

if he’s not really sure, he bites down hard on his whistle, like a newbie, experiencing unlubricated anal sex for the first time, would do on a pillow, but doesn’t blow it. Then waits for a voice in his ear from Stockley Park, telling him what to do next.
 
I agree, they haven't thought it through or the various scenarios that could occur. The rule simply states that a goal scored or created with the use of an accidental hand ball will not count. There were two hand balls in the Liverpool box - Silva's accidental ricochet, and Arnold's accidental hand ball - which prevented the ball going a City player in the area. Penalty? - nope as the first handball negates the second. The fact that Liverpool then went up the pitch and scored complicates it further

is the complicating factor down to them not being able to make a quick decision on these “clear and obvious” errors? 🤔
 



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