Pinchy
Blade, not Bladey.
Fucking ‘our’.
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Because we had a sell on clause with Hull that entitles us to a percentage of the transfer fee Hull receives for selling him. That’s a percentage of the total transfer fee. So if Hull also have a similar clause, they will receive an additional fee now, a percentage of which we are entitled to.Not sure. My point is, why should a selling club have part of any incoming fees passed on to a player's previous clubs? It's not reasonable or deserved. As a selling club that's your opportunity to benefit from any transfer. Once this is done and dusted the player belongs to another club. However they choose to deal with any potential transfer of said player in future, it has nothing to do with a player's previous clubs.
The size of a transfer is irrelevant to what you're entitled to as a club who once, long ago, employed the player.
Is it just me who couldn't find any mention of Maguire in the link?
If Man Utd are in the market for a CB, they should go for Koulibaly. Probabaly the best CB in the world right now with the possible exception of Van Dijk
Because we had a sell on clause with Hull that entitles us to a percentage of the transfer fee Hull receives for selling him. That’s a percentage of the total transfer fee. So if Hull also have a similar clause, they will receive an additional fee now, a percentage of which we are entitled to.
He's good, but he's not that good.
Even in today’s absurd market, and even when Champs League clubs need English players, and even a year ago at his World Cup zenith, 65m for Harry M would have been bloody ridiculous.
Today, after a come-down season of mixed performances and some ropey reviews, it’s bordering on insane.
Maguire, Koulibaly & VvD are all about the same height and all possesses the physicality and technique needed for a top quality, modern CB (in varying degrees)
Koulibaly is decent, but he is 27 approaching 28, and elements of his game are limited and he seems to come unstuck against the better opposition. Less than 250 games for Metz, Genk & Napoli is hardly a stellar CV. Napoli want £95m for him (or even 150m euros according to Italian press).
VvD is very good, but is approaching 28 and cost £75m. He's not really been tested at the top, top level.
Maguire has 300 odd games under his belt, and has made the step up to all levels that he has played at. This season has been indifferent, because he's sat in his comfort zone and not pushing himself at the top level of the prem and in the latter stages of European competition. Whether he's stayed at Leicester through loyalty or due to no serious bids, he wasted this season
There is a serious shortage of international quality (and international experienced) CB's in that 24 to 27 age range and they command a premium. Maguire is near enough in the current top 10 CB's in that range, along with Stones, VvD, Koulibaly, Laporte, Umtiti, Varane, etc. £65m for Maguire may sound a lot, but it is there or there abouts his current market value.
John Stones is worth nowhere near the £47.5m (plus add-ons) that City paid for him nearly six years ago (after Everton bought him from Barnsley for £3m in 2013). 'Fools and their money...'
Agree with all of that to be honest, including his valuation. The only thing I might add is that if he is in that top 10 bracket, there is an almighty drop off between #1 and #10.
I'd also throw Marquinhos and Kimpembe from PSG into the mix as well, although they are both 24 i think. Phil 'The Gurner' Jones probably creeps into the top 10 in 10th.
It's a funny market tbh, the likes of Barca & Real would rather pay silly money for an unproven/less proven 19/20 year old and work on them, de Ligt from Ajax being the next one i think.
Why is the cut off point where you say it is?This may become a circular discussion, so let's see if we can find some form of agreement.
We sell a player and receive a fee. Then said player is sold by his current club and we receive an already agreed fee due to a clause that states we receive an agreed percentage of this sale. Any sale of said player after this is where the cut off point arrives, so should the player be sold at this point we're not entitled to anything.
If there's an example of where this (disputed) ongoing payment exists perhaps it can be provided to clear this up.
Why is the cut off point where you say it is?
If we sell a player to club X for £2m plus 10% of any sell on fee, then club X sells a player for £20m plus 10% of any sell on fee, and the player is sold on for £60m, club X has received £20m + £6m = £26m. We are entitled to 10% of that. £2.6m. We already received £2m when the transfer went through and we get then get a further £0.6m when he moves on. Because the clause in our sell on deal specifically states that we receive 10% of the total sell on fee and the total sell on fee is £26m.
What is so implausible about that? What bit of England law could prevent that? What is illogical about that?
Why is the cut off point where you say it is?
If we sell a player to club X for £2m plus 10% of any sell on fee, then club X sells a player for £20m plus 10% of any sell on fee, and the player is sold on for £60m, club X has received £20m + £6m = £26m. We are entitled to 10% of that. £2.6m. We already received £2m when the transfer went through and we get then get a further £0.6m when he moves on. Because the clause in our sell on deal specifically states that we receive 10% of the total sell on fee and the total sell on fee is £26m.
What is so implausible about that? What bit of England law could prevent that? What is illogical about that?
John Stones is worth nowhere near the £47.5m (plus add-ons) that City paid for him nearly six years ago (after Everton bought him from Barnsley for £3m in 2013). 'Fools and their money...'
John Stones is worth nowhere near the £47.5m (plus add-ons) that City paid for him nearly six years ago (after Everton bought him from Barnsley for £3m in 2013). 'Fools and their money...'
There’s no reason why it can’t though. I’m nit saying it definitely has, I didn’t draft it, I’m just saying it’s not completely implausible.The contract details would have to specifically state that surely? If not, there's no contractual link between the original club and the final deal.
All I’m saying is that there is nothing to prevent there being a clause saying we get a percentage of the total fee. There probably are examples and I have a vague recollection of some lower league sides getting similar fees but I’ve got bettter things to do than research it.Simply put - because once a club buys and owns a player all expectation that said player's previous clubs can expect anything is unreasonable (one of the fundamentals of contractual exchange). By all means add whatever you feel is yours as an entitlement, including an agreed percentage of whatever fee the buying club is prepared to accept should they sell said player, but once the deal is done and dusted it's finalised, therefore the previous club no longer has a say or entitlement to what transpires in future.........so yes, we are entitled to a percentage of whatever fee the player's club sells him for. But beyond that...???
I've still not been shown an example of where this counter argument is meant to exist.
All I’m saying is that there is nothing to prevent there being a clause saying we get a percentage of the total fee. There probably are examples and I have a vague recollection of some lower league sides getting similar fees but I’ve got bettter things to do than research it.
Are best hopes are Brooks and twat Adams
Hope we get some money from this
Perfectly plausible BUT does 10% of next sale price extend to AND 10% of that teams sell on clause?Why is the cut off point where you say it is?
If we sell a player to club X for £2m plus 10% of any sell on fee, then club X sells a player for £20m plus 10% of any sell on fee, and the player is sold on for £60m, club X has received £20m + £6m = £26m. We are entitled to 10% of that. £2.6m. We already received £2m when the transfer went through and we get then get a further £0.6m when he moves on. Because the clause in our sell on deal specifically states that we receive 10% of the total sell on fee and the total sell on fee is £26m.
What is so implausible about that? What bit of England law could prevent that? What is illogical about that?
Actually, there doesn’t have to be. Man U pay Leicester. Under the terms of the contract between Hull and Leicester, Leicester has to pay Hull a sell on fee. That increases Hull’s total transfer fee received. We have a contract with Hull for x% of the total transfer fee they receive. Thus, they owe us.The contract details would have to specifically state that surely? If not, there's no contractual link between the original club and the final deal.
Actually, there doesn’t have to be. Man U pay Leicester. Under the terms of the contract between Hull and Leicester, Leicester has to pay Hull a sell on fee. That increases Hull’s total transfer fee received. We have a contract with Hull for x% of the total transfer fee they receive. Thus, they owe us.
So while ever a players transfer value on subsequent moves increases, we keep getting a payment?
More likely that the sell on clause would be restricted to just the first move.
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